BIOB33 Human Anatomy Important Terms UTSC

UTSC BIOB33 Human Anatomy Important terms to learn 


Define




Lecture 1

•   Anatomy (4)
  
•   Physiology (2)
  
•   Microscopic Anatomy
  

o Cytology + histology
o Histology
 Macroscopic Anatomy
o Surface anatomy, regional anatomy, systemic anatomy

•   Developmental Anatomy, Embryology, Comparative anatomy
  
•   Levels of organization (6) + their descriptions
  

o Which 4 elements (out of how many overall) make up 99% of the body?
o Major classes of compounds (5)
o Components of the digestive system (6)
o How many organ systems? List them + major functions

•   Anatomical position o Supine
  o Prone
  
•   Abdominopelvic regions and quadrants= specialized regional terms
  

o Name quadrants (4) + organs
o Name regions (9)  Sectional Anatomy
o 4cuts
o Body Cavities + membranes  Tissues
o Over how many cells in the body?  75 trillion
o 4 tissue categories
o 4 functions of epithelial cells + 3 specializations + 4 types (where they
are found and functions)  Development of Epithelia
o All epithelia begin as simple epithelia
o Cells differentiate into functional epithelial cells + gland cells that may
have endocrine or exocrine functions
o Complex glands begin to form as epithelial cells grow into underlying
tissue
o In the formation of an exocrine gland, cells connecting to secretory
cells to the surface= duct that carries secretions of the gland cells to the epithelial surface-formation of endocrine glands, connecting cells disappear and the gland cells secrete into blood vessels or into the surrounding tissue fluid

Lecture 2

•   2 types of fluid
  
•   Intercellular attachment (3)
  

o Molecules in Tight Junction
o Molecules in Anchoring Junctions
 CAMS bind to each other and other extracellular material

•   Proteoglycans link opposing membranes and form a junction
  with the cytoskeleton within the adjoining cells
  
•   Internal surface of the plasma membrane (inside the cell)=
  thickened protein plaque=dense area= intermediate filaments of cystoskeleton penertrate the plaque to extend throughout the cell for support and strength
  
•   Zone Adherens=adhesion belt= sheet-like anchoring junction that stabilizes non-epithelial cells- form of anchoring junction that encircles the cell
  
•   Macula adherens (desmosomes)= provides small localized spot-like anchoring junction that stabilizes adjacent epidermal cells (like button/snap, which each cell contributing half the snap)
  

o Molecules in Communication Junctions  Where are they common?

•   Integumentary system components (6)
  
•   Types of tissue in IS (2)
  
•   Functions of IS (7)
  
•   Divisions of the IS :
  

o Skin (cutaneous membrane)= Epidermis and dermis
o Hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)= deep to dermis
o Accessory structures= hair, nails, exocrine glands
o Hypodermis(subcutaneous)Dermis (cutaneous)reticular layer
(D)papillary layer (D)Stratum Basale (ED)Stratum spinosum (ED)Stratum granulosum (ED)Stratum lucidum (ED)Stratum Corneum (ED)
 Stratum Basale (2 types of cells located here)
o 15-30 days from here to top layer
o forms epidermial ridgesdermal papillae extend into dermis (4th
month of fetal development)dermatoglyphics  Stratum spinosum
o Keratinocytes= macular adherens/desmosomes + tonofibrils (bundles of protein filaments)
o Langerhans cells  Stratum granulosum
o Last layer with nucleated cells/keratinocytes
o Keratinization starts here
o 2 proteins produced by keratinocytes (protein functions?)
 Stratum lucidum

 Stratum corneum
o Thickened plasmalemmae
o Keratinized/cornified/no organelles and nucleus’/relatively dry and
water resistant= unsuitable for microorganisms

•   Name superficial layer of dermis + its components (3)
  
•   Name deep layer of dermis + its components (4)
  
•   Subcutaneous layer (aka....)= not technically part of the integument but helps
  STABILIZE it2 components_____needles, ________injections
  
•   ACCESSORY STRUCTURES (3)
  

o Structure of hair follicles
o Types of hair (3)
o Functions of hair (8)
o Hair color cause, age, influenced by (3) o Hair growth phases (4)
o Glands

•   Glandular functions (3)
  
•   Types of exocrine glands (2)
  
•   Sebaceous glands
  
•   Sweat glandsapocrine glands (3 types) + merocrine glands
  
•   APOCRINE SWEAT GLANDS= viscous secretion of complex
  composition/ ODOUROUS fluid+ strongly influenced by HORMONES + possible function in communication + LIMITED DISTRIBUTION IN AXILLAE, GROIN + NIPPLES
  
•   MEROCRINE SWEAT GLANDS= thin secretion of mostly water (sensible perspiration/sweat)+ controlled by nervous system +ALL OVER BODY WITH HIGH CONC. IN PALMS AND FEET
  
•   MEROCRINE GLANDS/ECCRINE GLANDSlocation + function
  (2)
  

o Nails

•   Function (1)
  
•   Structure (5)
  

 Repairing Injuries to the skin
o Step 1: bleeding occurs if dermis is penetrated
o Step 2: blod clot/scab forms at surface to restore integrity (insoluble
network of fibrinprotein from blood proteins during clotting clots color=due to trapped red blood cells

•   cells of stratum basale undergo rapid divisions and begin to migrate along edges of wound + macrophages patrol damaged area of dermis and phagocytize pathogens and debris
  
•   fibroblasts + mesenchymal cells divide rapidly + capillaries follow fibroblast to inc. circulation
  
•   combination of blood clot, fibroblasts, extensive capillary networkGRANULATION TISSUE
  

o Step 3: Fibroblast activity leads to appearance of collagen fibers and typical ground substance

Lecture 3

o Step 4: damaged hair follicles/sebaceous/sweat glands are not restoredformation of inflexible fibrous noncellular tissue= scar tissue= practical limit of repair
 KELOID= thick raised area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny smooth epidermal suface (ex.earlobes)

•   Development involves (2)
  
•   Types of development (2)
  
•   Fertilization definition
  
•   Function + structure of haploid cells
  

o Spermatozoon
 (22 haploid chromosomes + 1 X or Y)
o Ovum (corona radiate, zona pellucida) + polar body + secondary oocyte (23 haploid chromosomes, 22 autosomes, second X chromosome, suspended in meiosis 2)

•   Describe the movement of the ovum and process of fertilization
  
•   Describe change in sperm numbers
  
•   Fertilization details:
  

o Acrosomal enzymes of multiple sperm create gaps in corona radiate one sperm makes contact with the secondary oocyte after passing through zona pellucidasperm enters cell + membrane fuses with that of the secondary oocyteoocyte activation= cortical granules from oocyte dissolve in cytoplasm changing permeability of the egg + meiosis goes to completionfemale pronucleus formsmale pronucleus + spindle fibers formcleavage division beings= metaphase of 1st cleavage division= amphimixis (female + male pronucleus fuse)30 hrs after fertilization= cytokinesis, first cleavage division is almost overzygote (diploid, 46 choromosomes)

•   Prenatal Development= gestation period, trimesters
  
•   First Trimester= 4 events
  
•   Cleavage and Blastocyst formation
  

o Blastomeres definition, what are they a result of?
o “blast”
o describe the change from a blastomere to a blastocyst o components of a blastocyst (3)
 Describe the implantation process
o Describe the formation of blastodiscs and their two layers
 Describe gastrulation + germ layer formation
o what organs/organ systems are derived from each of the germ layers?

•   4 major extraembryonic membranes
  
•   Describe placentation process
  
•   Describe Embyrogenesis
  

o What happens prior to folding? Where does mesoderm spread?

o What are the 2 types of folding
Lecture 4
 Describe connective tissue o Derived from?
o Examples (7)
o Function (6)
o Elements of connective tissues (2)
 Origins of connective tissue
CONNECTIVE TISSUE PROPER
o Mesenchymeembryonic connective tissuecan differ into any of
the connective tissue proper (loose or dense) OR
SUPPORTING CONNECTIVE TISSUE
o Mesenchymecartilage can develop as mesenchymal cells
differentiate into chondroblasts (produce cartilage matrix) chondroblasts can become chondrocytes (3 types of cartilage= hyline (smooth, perichondrium, gel, no fibers) elastic (elastic fibers and perichondrium) fibrous cartilage (resists compression, gel with mix of fibrous tissue and cartilage, lots of collage, no perichondrium)
o Mesenchymeosteoblasts= lay down matrix of bonetrapped as
osteocytes in lacunae OR
FLUID CONNECTIVE TISSUE
o Mesenchymecreate network of interconnected tubescells
trapped in these tubes differentiate into red + white blood cells

•   Terminology (3)
  
•   Components of ECM (4)
  
•   Classification of connective tissue
  

o Based on?
o Types of connective tissue (3) and examples of each
o Types of connective tissue proper with loose fibers (3) o Types of connective tissue proper with dense fibers (3)
 Types of tissue/cells in dense irregular tissue (4)
 Location + function of dense regular tissue o Fixed cells in connective tissue proper (6)
o Wandering cells in connective tissue proper (4)
o Fluid connective tissue (2)
 Components of blood (4) o Supportive connective tissue (2)
 Cartilage

•   Type of cell, associated with?, matrix= CHONDROITIN
  SULFATES + PROTEINS= HYDRATED PROTEOGLYCANS,
  structure, location, osteoarthritis
  
•   Types of cartilage (3)
  

 Bone

•   3 structures
  
•   marrow- location and types
  

 Membranes= consist of epithelia and connective tissue
o 4 types  Muscle tissue
o Pairs + example
o Muscle arrangement
o 3 types of muscle tissue (characteristics and function)
 Neural Tissue
o Function (2)
o Define neurons + parts of structure (4)
Lecture 5

•   Neuralation
  
•   Axial skeleton (3 parts)
  

o Cranial bones (6)
o Facial bones (8)
o Auditory bones (2 types)
 Auditory ossicles- 3 types
 Hyoid bone- thyrohyoid ligament, thyroid cartilage-
swallowing
o Vertebral column (26)
o Functions of vertebral column (6)
o Vertebral process of typical vertebra (6) o Intervertebral joints
 Function
 Facet joints
 Nucleus pulposis, anulus fibrosis
o Thoracic cage
 Functions (2)
 Bones (2 parts)

•   Part 1= 3 bones
  
•   Part 2= 12
  

 Appendicular skeleton (6)
o Pectoral gridle (3 components)  Function
o Upper limbs= humerus, radius, ulna, carpal bones, metacarpals, phelanges/pollox
o Pelvic gridlesacrum attached to two coxal bones o Coxal bones= fusion of ilium, ischium, pubis
 Attached anteriorly and posteriorly by?
o Lower limbs= femur, tibia/shin, fibula/inside/calf, patella
(perochondrium, hyaline cartilage, synovial membrane), tarsal, metatarsal, phalanges= proximal, middle, distal/hallux

 Development of skulls
o Infantsnot fully developed skull at birth, attached by fibrous
cartilage because before delivery brain grows rapidly and bone can’t keep up, distorts but is fine during birthing
 FONTANELSlargest fibrous regions between cranial bones anterior, posterior, sphenoidal, mastoid
 Most significant growth of skull occurs at age 5 when coronal sutures form
 KYPHOSIS
o Normal thoracic curve of vertebral column becomes exaggerated
posteriorlyround back appearancecaused by osteoporosis or
chronic contractions or abnormal vertebral growth  LORDOSIS
o Abdomen and buttocks protrude abnormally
o Caused by anterior exaggeration of lumbar curveabdominal wall
obesity or weakness in muscles of abdominal wall  SCOLIOSIS
o Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine
o Caused by incomplete vertebral formation or from muscular paralysis
VOCABULARY

•   Systemic anatomy
  
•   Supine
  
•   Prone
  
•   Ventral/dorsal
  
•   Caudal
  
•   Stereocilia
  
•   Mediastinal
  
•   Inguinal
  
•   Exocrine
  
•   Cereuminous
  o Cerumen
  
•   Merocrine
  o Eccrine
  
•   Eponychium
  
•   Hyponychium
  
•   Corona radiate
  
•   Zona pellucida
  
•   Proteoglycans
  
•   Ampulla
  
•   Hyaluronidase
  
•   Amphimixis
  
•   Blastocyst
  

•   Embryogenesis
  
•   Blastomeres
  
•   Morula
  
•   Blastocoele
  
•   Embryoblast
  
•   Syncytial trophoblast
  
•   Amniotic cavity
  
•   Blastocoele cavity
  
•   blastodisc
  
•   Epiblast
  
•   Hypoblast
  
•   Gastrulation
  
•   Amnion
  
•   Yolk sac
  
•   Allantois
  
•   Body stalk
  
•   Chorion
  
•   Chorionic villi
  
•   Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
  
•   Cloacal membrane
  
•   Buccopharyngeal membrane
  
•   Cephalocaudal folding
  
•   Transverse folding
  
•   Lymphocytes
  
•   Annulus fibrosis
  
•   Nucleus pulposis
  
•   Mast cells
  
•   Monocytes
  
•   Plasmocytes
  
•   Leukocytes
  
•   Fascia
  
•   Messenchymal cells
  
•   Fibroblast
  
•   Myofibrils
  
•   Erythrocytes
  
•   Platelets
  
•   Lymphoid/lymphatic
  
•   Perforating canal
  
•   Central/haversian canal
  
•   Chondrocytes
  

o Chondroitin suflates + proteinshydrated proteoglycans

•   Perichondrium
  
•   Perimysium
  
•   Periasteum
  

•   Lamellae
  
•   Canaliculi
  
•   Trabeculae
  
•   Notochord
  
•   Vomer
  
•   Inferior nasal conchae
  
•   Auditory ossicle
  
•   Hyoid
  
•   Malleus
  
•   Incus
  
•   stapes
  
•   Osteoarthritis
  
•   Diaphysis
  
•   Epiphysis
  
•   Metaphysis
  
•   Medullary canal
  
•   Hemopoietic
  
•   Muscle fascicle
  
•   Sarcoplasm
  
•   Sarcolemmae
  
•   Endomysium
  
•   Epimysium
  
•   Intercalated discs
  
•   Myometrium
  
•   Apopneuroses
  
•   Transudate
  
•   Synovial
  
•   Neuralation
  
•   Notochord
  
•   Neural plat/groove/tube
  
•   Spinabifida
  
•   Paraxial mesoderm
  o Somites
  
•   Intermediate mesoderm
  
•   Lateral plate mesoderm
  
•   Head mesenchyme
  
•   Girdles
  
•   Scapulae
  
•   Brachium
  
•   Antebrachium
  
•   Pollex
  
•   Bones of Carpal= scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium,
  trapezoid, capitates, hamae
  
•   Coxal bones (fusion of ilium, ischium, pubis)
  

CHMA10 CHAPTER 2 MIDTERM QUESTION BANK

CHMA10 MIDTERM CHEMISTRY UTSC 

Chemistry: A Molecular Approach (Tro) 

Chapter 2 Atoms and Elements 

1. 1)  What element is defined by the following information?
2. 
   
3. 0. p+ = 11 n° = 12 e- = 11
      
               A) sodium
   
   0. B) vanadium 
      
   1. C) magnesiumD) titanium 
   2. 
      
   3. Answer: A 
4. 1. 
      
   2. 2)  What element is defined by the following information? 
   3. 
      
   4. p+ = 20 n° = 20 e- = 20

   
   

   0. 
      
   1. A) calcium 
      
   2. B) rubidium 
   3. C) chlorine
   4. D) neon 
   5. E) oxygen 
   6. 
      

   0. Answer: B 
      
5. 1. 
      
   2. 3)  What element is defined by the following information? 
   3. 
      

   
   

   0. p+ = 17 n° = 20 e- = 17 
      

   
   
6. 0. 
      
   1. A) calcium 
      
   2. B) rubidium
   3.  C) chlorine
   4. D) neon 
   5. E) oxygen 

   
   

   0. Answer: C 

1. 4)  What does "X" represent in the following symbol?
   
   
   1. A)  mercury
      
   2. B)  chlorine
      
   3. C)  scandium
      
   4.       D)  bromine
      
   5.        E)  selenium
      
   Answer: D 
   

5. 
   
6. 
   
7. 
   
8. 
   
9. 5)  What does "X" represent in the following symbol?
   
   
   
   A) tin
   B) copper
   C) palladium
   D) niobium
   
10.  E) uranium

0. Answer: E
   
1. 
   
2. 
   
3. 
   
   5. 
      
   6. 
      
   7. 6)  What does "X" represent in the following symbol?
      
      
      
      A) silicon 
      
   8. B) sulfur 
   9. C) zinc
   10. D) ruthenium
   11. E) nickel
   12. 
       
   13. Answer: A

5. 7)  Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following:
   
6. 
   
7. 

A)    p+=18 n°=18        e-=22 

B)   p+=18 n°=22        e-=18 

C)   p+=22 n °=18        e-=18 

D)   p+=18 n°=22      e-= 40
 
E)   p+=40 n°=22         e-=18 

Answer: B

8) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following:

A)  p+=12 n°=25  e- = 12 

B)  p+=12 n°=12  e- = 13

C)  p+=12 n°=13   e- = 12

D)  p+=25 n°=12  e- = 13

E)  p+=12 n°=13    e- = 25

  

Answer: C

9) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following:

A)   p+ = 36   n° = 29       e-=36
 B)  p+=29      n°=29          e-=36
C)   p+=36      n° = 36        e-=29 
D)   p+=29       n° = 36        e-=29
E)    p+=29      n° = 36        e-=36 

Answer: D

10) What species is represented by the following information?

p+ = 12      n° = 14        e- = 10

A) Si4+ 
B) Mg 
C) Ne
D) Si

E) Mg2+

Answer: E

11) What species is represented by the following information?

p+ = 47  n° = 60    e- = 46
A) Ag+ 
B) Nd 
C) Pd
D) Ag 
E) Pd+

Answer: A

12) What species is represented by the following information?

p+ = 17    n° = 18      e- = 18 
A) Cl 
B) Cl-
C) Ar
D) Ar+ 
E) Kr

Answer: B

13. 
    
14. 
    
15. 
    
16. 13)  Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? 
17. 
    
18. A) Ba
19. 
    
20. B) Mg
21. 
    
22.  C) Xe
23. 
    
24.  D) Pb
25. 
    
26.  E) Ga 
27. 
    
28. Answer: C 

13. 
    
14. 
    
15. 14)  Which of the following elements is a metal?
    
16. 
    
17.  A) As
18. 
    
19. B) C
20. 
    
21.  C) I 
22. 
    
23. D) Sn 
24. 
    
25. E) Se  
26. 
    
27. 
    
28. Answer: D 

15. 15)  Which of the following elements is a nonmetal? A) Zn
    B) Cs C) Ca D) Co E) P Answer: E
    

15. 16)  Which of the following elements is a noble gas? A) Ar
    B) Br C) N D) O E) K
    Answer: A
    

15. 17)  Which of the following elements is a halogen? A) Ne
    B) I C) O D) Mg E) K
    Answer: B
    

15. 18)  Which of the following elements is an alkaline earth metal? A) Cs
    B) Cu C) Mg D) Ti E) Br
    Answer: C
    

15. 19)  Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? A) Zn
    B) Xe C) F D) Li E) Ca
    Answer: D 
    

15. 20)  Predict the charge that an aluminum ion would have. A) 5-
    B) 1+ C) 1- D) 2+ E) 3+
    Answer: E 
    

21. 21)  Predict the charge that a calcium ion would have. A) 6-
    B) 2- C) 3+ D) 2+ E) 1+
    Answer: D
    

21. 22)  Predict the charge that an ion formed from sulfur would have. A) 1-
    B) 6+ C) 3- D) 4+ E) 2-
    Answer: E
    

21. 23)  Predict the charge that the ion formed from bromine would have. A) 1-
    B) 2+ C) 1+ D) 4+ E) 2-
    Answer: A 
    

21. 24)  A 14.01 g sample of N2 reacts with 3.02 g of H2 to form ammonia (NH3). If ammonia is the only product,
    what mass of ammonia is formed? 
    
22. 
    
    21. A) 17.03 g
    22. 
        
23.             B) 1.10 g 
24. 
                C) 14.01 g
25. 
    
26.              D) 3.02 g 
28.               E) 23.07 g
29. 
    

               Answer: A 

21. 25)  A 12.39 g sample of phosphorus reacts with 42.54 g of chlorine to form only phosphorus trichloride (PCl3). If it is the only product, what mass of PCl3 is formed?
    A) 30.15 g B) 54.93 g C) 140.01 g
    D) 79.71 g E) 91.86 g
    Answer: B
    

21. 26)  Two samples of potassium iodide are decomposed into their constituent elements. The first sample produced 13.0 g of potassium and 42.3 g of iodine. If the second sample produced 24.4 kg of potassium, how many kg of iodine were produced?
    A) 13.3 kg B) 22.5 kg C) 79.4 kg D) 44.4 kg E) 92.4 kg
    Answer: C 
    

0. 
   
   27. 
       
   28. 
       
   29. 27)  Two samples of calcium fluoride are decomposed into their constituent elements. The first sample produced g of calcium and g of fluorine. If the second sample produced 294 mg of fluorine, how many g of calcium were formed?
       A) 0.280 g
       B) 3.09 × 102 g 
       E) 2.80 × 102 g 
       
   30. C) 3.13 g
       D) 0.309 g
   31. 
       
   32. Answer: D 

   
   

27. 28)  Calculate the atomic mass of silver if silver has 2 naturally occurring isotopes with the following masses and natural abundances:
    

Ag-107    106.90509 amu     51.84%

Ag-109     108.90476 amu      48.46% 


A) 107.90    amu 

 B) 108.00   amu 

C) 107.79    amu

D) 108.32    amu

E) 108.19     amu


Answer: E

29) Calculate the atomic mass of gallium if gallium has 2 naturally occurring isotopes with the following masses and natural abundances:

Ga-69 68.9256 amu   60.11%

Ga-71 70.9247 amu   39.89% 


A) 69.72 amu

 B) 69.93 amu 

C) 70.00 amu 

D) 69.80 amu 

E) 70.68 amu

Answer: A

30) Calculate the atomic mass of element "X", if it has 2 naturally occurring isotopes with the following masses and natural abundances:

X-45 44.8776 amu    32.88%

X-47 46.9443 amu      67.12% 


A) 46.27 amu

 B) 45.91 amu 

C) 46.34 amu 

D) 46.84 amu 

E) 44.99 amu


Answer: A

31. 31)  How many silver atoms are contained in 3.75 moles of silver? A) 6.23 × 1024 silver atoms
    B) 2.26 × 1024 silver atoms
    C) 1.61 × 1023 silver atoms
    D) 2.44 × 1026 silver atoms
    E) 6.50 × 1025 silver atoms
    
32. 
    
33.  Answer: B 

31. 32)  How many xenon atoms are contained in 2.36 moles of xenon? A) 3.92 × 1024 xenon atoms
    B) 2.55 × 1023 xenon atoms
    C) 1.42 × 1024 xenon atoms
    D) 7.91 × 1025 xenon atoms
    E) 1.87 × 1026 xenon atoms 
    
32. 
    
33. Answer: C

31. 33)  How many argon atoms are contained in 7.66 x 105 mmol of argon? A) 4.61 × 1026 Ar atoms
    B) 1.84 × 1028 Ar atoms
    C) 1.15 × 1028 Ar atoms
    D) 7.86 × 1020 Ar atoms
    E) 3.24 × 1026 Ar atoms 
    
32. 
    
33. Answer: A

31. 
    
32. 34)  What mass (in kg) does 5.84 moles of titanium (Ti) have?
    
    
33. A) 0.352 kg
34. 
    
35. 
    B) 0.122 kg 
36. 
    
37. C) 0.820 kg 
38. 
    
39. D) 0.280 kg 
40. 
    
41. E) 0.632 kg

Answer: D 

31. 
    
32. 
    
33. 
    
34. 35)  What mass (in mg) does 2.63 moles of nickel have? 
35. 
    
36. A) 44.8 mg

31. B) 2.23 × 104 mg
32. 
    
33. C) 129 mg
34. 
    
35. D) 3.56 x 105 mg
36. 
    
37. E) 1.54 x 105 mg 
38. 
    
39. Answer: E 
40. 
    
41. 
    

31. 36)  What mass (in g) does 3.99 moles of Kr have?
    
    
32.  A) 334 g
33. 
    
34. B) 476 g
35. 
    
36. C) 211 g 
37. 
    
38. D) 240 g
39. 
    
40.  E) 144 g

27. Answer: A 

37. 
    
38. 
    
39. 
    
40. 37)  How many moles of Kr are contained in 398 mg of Kr? 
    
41. A) 4.75 × 10-3 moles Kr
42. 
    
43. B) 33.4 moles Kr
44. 
    
45. C) 2.11 × 10-4 moles Kr
46. 
    
47. D) 2.99 × 10-3 moles Kr
48. 
    
49. E) 1.19 × 10-4 moles Kr 
50. 
    
52. Answer: A

37. 38)  How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs?
    
    
38. A) 2.23 × 102 moles Cs
39. 
    
40. 
    B) 4.48 × 103 moles Cs 
41. 
    
42. C) 7.91 × 104 moles Cs
44. D) 1.26 × 103 moles Cs 
45. 
    
46. E) 5.39 × 102 moles Cs

37. Answer: B
38. 
    

37. 39)  How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium?
    
     A) 11.5 moles
38. 
    
39. B) 17.6 moles 

37. C) 69.2 moles 
38. 
    
39. D) 23.9 moles 
40. 
    
41. E) 41.5 moles

Answer: A

37. 
    
38. 40)  How many Li atoms are contained in 97.9 g of Li?
    

            A) 5.90 × 1025 Li atoms

37. B) 7.09 × 1021 Li atoms

37. C) 8.49 × 1024 Li atoms
38. 
    
39. D) 4.27 × 1022 Li atoms

37. E) 4.18 × 1024 Li atoms 
38. 
    
39. Answer: C

37. 41)  How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron? 

37. 
    A) 2.62 × 1025 Fe atoms
38. 
    
39. B) 2.13 × 1026 Fe atoms

            C) 4.69 × 1024 Fe atoms

            D) 3.82 × 1024 Fe atoms

             E) 9.50 × 1022 Fe atoms 

           Answer: D

37. 42)  How many phosphorus atoms are contained in 158 kg of phosphorus? 
38. 
    
39. A) 3.07 × 1027 phosphorus atoms

            B) 2.95 × 1027 phosphorus atoms

             C) 3.25 × 1028 phosphorus atoms

37. D) 1.18 × 1024 phosphorus atoms
38. 
    
39. E) 8.47 × 1024phosphorus atoms
40. 
    
41.  Answer: A
42. 
    

43. 43)  Calculate the mass (in g) of 1.9 x 1024 atoms of Pb.                                                                                            A) 3.9 × 102 g
    B) 2.4 × 102 g
                             
    
44. C) 3.2 × 102 g 
45. D) 1.5 × 102 g 
46. E) 6.5 × 102 g

Answer: E

43. 44)  Calculate the mass (in kg) of 4.87 x 1025 atoms of Zn.                                                                                           A) 5.29 kg
    B) 1.89 kg 
    
    
44. C) 8.09 kg 
45. D) 1.24 kg 
46. E) 1.09 kg

Answer: A

43. 45)  Calculate the mass (in ng) of 2.33 x 1020 atoms of oxygen.                                                                                  A) 6.19 × 106 ng
    B) 1.62 × 107 ng
    C) 2.25 × 103 ng
    D) 3.73 × 106 ng
    E) 4.69 × 107 ng
    
44. 
    
45.  Answer: A 

43. 46)  Which of the following is an example of the law of multiple proportions?
    
    1. A)  A sample of chlorine is found to contain three times as much Cl-35 as Cl-37.
       
    2. B)  Two different compounds formed from carbon and oxygen have the following mass ratios: 1.33 g O: 1 g C and 2.66 g O: 1 g C.
       
    3. C)  Two different samples of table salt are found to have the same ratio of sodium to chlorine.
       
    4. D)  The atomic mass of bromine is found to be 79.90 amu.
       
    5. E)  Nitrogen dioxide always has a mass ratio of 2.28 g O: 1 g N.
       
    Answer: B 
    

43. 47)  Which of the following statements is FALSE?
    A) Anions are usually larger than their corresponding atom.
    B) Metals tend to form cations
    C) Atoms are usually larger than their corresponding cation. D) The halogens tend to form 1+ ions.
    E) Nonmetals tend to gain electrons.
    Answer: D
    

43. 48)  Which of the following statements about isotopes is TRUE?
    
    1. A)  Isotopes of the same element differ only in the number of electrons they contain.
       
    2. B)  An isotope of an atom with a larger number of neutrons is larger than an isotope of the same atom that contains fewer neutrons.
       
    3. C)  Isotopes of the same element have the same mass.
       
    4. D)  Isotopes of the same element don't usually have the same properties.
       
    5. E)  Some elements have 3 or more naturally occurring isotopes.
       
    Answer: E 
    

49. 49)  Which of the following statements is FALSE?                                                                                                       A) Halogens are very reactive elements.
    B) The alkali metals are fairly unreactive.                                                                                                                       C) Sulfur is a main group element.
    D) Noble gases do not usually form ions.                                                                                                                       E) Zn is a transition metal.
    Answer: B
    

49. 50)  Which of the following does NOT describe a metal?                                                                                               A) Good conductor of heat
    B) Good conductor of electricity
    C) Tend to gain electrons
    D) Form ionic compounds with nonmetals
    E) Found on the left side of the periodic table.
    Answer: C
    

49. 51)  Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal?                                                                                        A) Tend to gain electrons
    B) Found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table.                                                                                  C) Poor conductor of electricity
    D) Nonmetals are generally unreactive.
    E) Poor conductor of heat.
        Answer: D
    

49. 52)  Which of the following statements is FALSE according to Dalton's Atomic Theory?
    
    1. A)  Atoms combine in simple whole number ratios to form compounds.
       
    2. B)  All atoms of chlorine have identical properties that distinguish them from other elements.
       
    3. C)  One carbon atom will combine with one oxygen atom to form a molecule of carbon monoxide.
       
    4. D)  Atoms of sodium do not change into another element during chemical reaction with chlorine.
       
    5. E)  An atom of nitrogen can be broken down into smaller particles that will still have the unique properties
       of nitrogen.
       
    
    
    Answer: E
    

49. 53)  Which of the following statements about subatomic particles is TRUE?                                                             A) A neutral atom contains the same number of protons and electrons.
    B) Protons have about the same mass as electrons.
    C) Electrons make up most of the mass of an atom.
    D) Protons and neutrons have opposite, but equal in magnitude, charges.                                                                   E) Neutrons and electrons are found in the nucleus of an atom.
    Answer: A
    

49. 54)  Which of the following contains the MOST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here.                     A) 10.0 g Ne
    B) 10.0 g He                                                                                                                                                                C) 10.0 g Ar                                                                                                                                                                     D) 10.0 g Kr                                                                                                                                                                 E) 10.0 gMg
    Answer: B 
    

55. 55)  Which of the following contains the FEWEST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here.                     A) 4.0 g Li
    B) 4.0 g Na 
56.  C) 4.0 g Rb 
57. D) 4.0 g K 
58. E) 4.0 g Ca

Answer: C

55. 56)  Why do the isotopes of the same element have the same atomic size?
    
56. 
    Answer: Isotopes only differ in the number of protons contained within the nucleus. Since the size of an atom is determined by the electrons, isotopes of the same element should be the same size.

55. 57)  Why doesn't a mass spectrum of silver have a peak at 107.9 amu?
    
56. 
    Answer: The average atomic mass of silver is 107.9 amu, but there are no atoms of silver that weigh 107.9 amu. One isotope weighs more and another weighs less.

55. 58)  Describe an atom and what it is made up of according to modern atomic theory.
    
56. 
    Answer: An atom is made up of a nucleus surrounded by electrons. The nucleus contains protons (positively charged particles) and neutrons (neutral particles) and is where most of the mass of an atom comes from, but is a tiny fraction of an atoms volume. The nucleus is surrounded by negatively charged electrons, the same number as there are protons in the nucleus. An atom is therefore neutral overall.

55. 59)  Are anions typically larger or smaller than their corresponding atom? Why?
    
56. 
    
57. Answer: Anions are larger than their corresponding atom because the anion contains more electrons than the atom. Since electrons repel one another AND determine the size of the atom or ion, adding electrons to the atom to form an anion makes it larger.

55. 60)  Why do elements in the same group tend to have similar chemical properties?
    
56. 
    Answer: Since elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons (similar electron

Match the following.


61) magnesium 
62) carbon
63) potassium 
64) iron
65) silicon

A) Ca 
B) Mg 
C) K
D) S 
E) Si 
F) P
G) C
 H) In
I) Mn
 J) Fe

61) B

62) G

63) C

64) J

65) E